"voting is a right granted to citizens of the United States," and thus the city law granting the right to noncitizens violates the constitution." https://www.foxnews.com/politics/ny-supreme-court-strikes-law-allowing-noncitizens-vote
Welp, here's one right/freedom that Europe has that the US doesn't! If you are a resident in a European country, but not a citizen, you have the right to vote in various elections. You are not allowed to participate in more than one EU country's elections.
You might be allowed to vote in the local elections for more than one country, but it's my understanding that you cannot participate in the national or EU-wide elections in more than one country and that you can get into serious trouble if they catch you doing that.
New York has unusual nomenclature for its court system. So note that while the Fox News article utterly fails to explain this at all, this was a decision by the district court in Staten Island, not the New York Court of Appeals in Albany and certainly not SCOTUS.
The two state court systems I have trouble sorting out are New York and Texas. I think Texas is marginally worse.
Interesting question, though. Could a State allow non U.S. citizens vote in its general, but non federal, elections? Another way to look at this is whether a State can confer its citizenship on non U.S. nationals. I THINK the answer is "no" because Congress alone has the power to "establish a Uniform Rule of Naturalization" according to Art. 1 of the U.S. constitution. One thing is quite clear, though. A State cannot refuse to accept any U.S. citizen resident therein as one of its State citizens nor does even Congress have the power to allow such a thing. Nor is there any source of U.S. citizenship that does not flow from the Fourteenth Amendment. There may have been before 1865 but not since.